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  1. #1
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    NVQ 3 online test



    Hi, was wondering if anyone in the UK has info on practice test questions for the online tests 301 and 302. Has anybody recently done it, and do they ask much on cascade systems. I am not at college, but am doing the tests as an "experienced" person. I have already done the 101, 201, 202 tests with no problem, but seeing I mainly work on chillers and larger packaged units they advised me to rather skip the NVQ2 porfolio and complete the NVQ3.
    Any takers
    Thanks



  2. #2
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    Re: NVQ 3 online test

    Quote Originally Posted by Burrah Boy View Post
    Hi, was wondering if anyone in the UK has info on practice test questions for the online tests 301 and 302. Has anybody recently done it, and do they ask much on cascade systems. I am not at college, but am doing the tests as an "experienced" person. I have already done the 101, 201, 202 tests with no problem, but seeing I mainly work on chillers and larger packaged units they advised me to rather skip the NVQ2 porfolio and complete the NVQ3.
    Any takers
    Thanks


    1. What are the two axes that make up a typical system balance graph?

    a. Pressure and temperature
    b. Capacity (kW) and saturated suction temperature
    c. Pressure and condensing temperature
    d. Compressor capacity and superheated discharge temperature

    2. What two temperatures have an affect on the humidity levels within a refrigerated space?

    a. Suction and evaporating
    b. Air and condensing
    c. Evaporating and condensing
    d. Evaporating and air

    3. What happens to the capacity of the air-cooled evaporator if the air circulation is reduced?

    a. Remains the same
    b. Increases
    c. Decreases
    d. Freezes the product

    4. What is the surface area of an evaporator if the velocity of air required is 2 m/s for an airflow rate of 0.2m³/s?

    a. 10 m²
    b. 0.4 m²
    c. 0.2 m²
    d. 0.1m²

    5. A small condensing unit is designed to work at a selected ambient temperature, what happens to the capacity (kW) of the unit if the ambient temperature increases above design conditions?

    a. Remains the same
    b. Increases
    c. Decreases
    d. Non of the above


    6. The heat load from a small evaporator fan motor is 0.308kW over a 24 hour running period. If the motor has a running time of 16 hours within a 24-hour period, what is the actual heat load from the motor?

    a. 0.0193 kW
    b. 0.462 kW
    c. 0.492 kW
    d. 7.392 kW

    7. The rated capacity taken from a manufacturers catalogue for of an evaporating to air temperature difference of 6 K is 5.5 kW. If the final calculated heat load is 4.5 kW, what is the actual evaporating to air temperature difference?

    a. 4.9 K
    b. 7.3 K
    c. 27 K
    d. 33 K

    8. A manufactured air cooled evaporator is normally designed around an evaporating to air temperature difference of?

    a. 3 to 4 K
    b. 4 to 5 K
    c. 5 to 6 K
    d. 6 to 7 K

    9. When a condensing unit and evaporator are connected into a system the relationship established between the two is known as the?

    a. System balance point
    b. Capacity point
    c. Evaporating temperature
    d. Condensing temperature

    10. Name the correction factor that needs to be taken into account when calculating the size of an air-cooled condenser?

    a. Log mean temperature
    b. Temperature difference
    c. Ambient temperature
    d. Altitude

    11. One of the main criteria used to select a thermostatic expansion valve is the?

    a. Oil
    b. Inlet size
    c. Refrigerant type
    d. Outlet size

    12. An externally equalised thermostatic expansion valve takes into account?

    a. Pressure drop across the condenser
    b. The external Phial/Bulb temperature
    c. Pressure drop across the evaporator
    d. Oil Logging


    13. If the speed of a belt driven compressor is reduced, the suction pressure will tend to?

    a. Stay the same
    b. Increase
    c. Decrease
    d. Behave erratically

    14. 20 kg of water at 0° C is to be frozen to ice. How much heat is to be removed?
    {Take the latent heat of ice to be 335 kJ\kg.}

    a. 0.06
    b. 16.75
    c. 6700
    d. 7200

    15. If 7200 kJ of heat is to be removed from a quantity of peas in 10 minutes, the rate of heat removal in Kilowatts (kW) is?

    a. 0.0083
    b. 12
    c. 720
    d. 4300



    taz.

    .

  3. #3
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    Re: NVQ 3 online test

    1. Vacuum gauges measure pressure

    A) Lower than atmospheric pressure
    B) Above atmospheric pressure
    C) Above 30 inches of mercury
    D) Below 200 psi

    2. Dial stem thermometers are used for

    A) Angle measurements
    B) Temperature measurements
    C) Pressure and Temperature measurements
    D) Temperature and vacuum measurements

    3. Compound gauges measure

    A) Below and above atmospheric pressure
    B) Absolute pressure
    C) Absolute and gauge pressure
    D) High discharge pressure

    4. Which of the following is a function of a complete air conditioning system?
    A) Temperature and humidity control
    B) Air Filtering, cleaning and purification
    C) Recirculation and air distribution
    D) All of the above are functions of a complete air conditioning system.

    5. What makes up the main living portion of the atmosphere

    A) Oxygen, nitrogen, carbon monoxide and hydrogen
    B) Oxygen, nitrogen, carbon dioxide, hydrogen, and sulfur dioxide
    C) Oxygen and hydrogen
    D) Oxygen, nitrogen, carbon dioxide

    6. In what form does water exist in the air?

    A) Solid
    B) Liquid
    C) Vapour
    D) None of the above

    7. Dry bulb and wet bulb thermometers indicate

    A) Air temperature
    B) Relative humidity
    C) Amount of moisture and heat in the air?
    D) All of the above

    8. What happens to the moisture absorption properties of air as the temperature decreases?

    A) Decrease
    B) Increase
    C) Remain the same
    D) None of the above

    9. When is air heated, the relative humidity

    A) Decreases
    B) Remains constant
    C) May increase or decrease, depending on the air temperature
    D) Increases

    10. The chemical formula for ozone is

    A) 01
    B) 02
    C) 03
    D) None of the above

    11. Pressure – temperature condition of a substance in equilibrium (i.e. solid liquid and vapour states) is called

    A) Triple point
    B) Dew point
    C) Boiling point
    D) Melting point

    12. Total heat is equal to the sum of

    A) Low and high temperature
    B) Sensible and latent heat
    C) Sensible heat and superheat
    D) Latent heat and heat rejected


    13. Total heat rejected (THR) in a condenser equal to

    A) Heat rejected in the metering device
    B) Heat absorbed in evaporator plus heat of compression
    C) Heat absorbed in metering device
    D) Heat of evaporation plus latent heat



    14. Degree of hotness or coldness as measured by a thermometer is called

    A) Heat energy
    B) Temperature
    C) Thermister
    D) Thermostat

    15. Which of the following describes the ability of a material to transfer heat

    A) Temperature
    B) Heat exchanger
    C) Thermal conductivity
    D) Condenser

    16. Heat transfer through solids by compact molecular vibration is called

    A) Conduction
    B) Convection
    C) Fusion
    D) Radiation

    17. Which of the following best describes heat transfer in fluids (liquid or gas)
    A) Conduction
    B) Convection
    C) Fusion
    D) Radiation

    18. Heat transfer by energy waves through space or air where the space is not heated is called

    A) Conduction
    B) Convection
    C) Fusion
    D) Radiation

    19. What is the right name of a pressure gauge for gases and liquids

    A) Barometer
    B) Manometer
    C) Hygrometer
    D) Tachometer


    20. Give a close answer to an instrument for measuring atmospheric pressure

    A) Barometer
    B) Manometer
    C) Hygrometer
    D) Tachometer



    21. An instrument for measuring the humidity of the air is called

    A) Barometer
    B) Manometer
    C) Hygrometer
    D) Tachometer



    22. State the units for Force

    a) Pa
    b) kJ
    c) km
    d) Newton (N)


    23. Give the units for work and energy.

    a) kJ
    b) kPa
    c) Watt
    d) kN


    24. Define power and state the unit

    a) Force in action; kW
    b) Work done under pressure; kW
    c) The rate of distance x time; Watt
    d) The rate at doing work; Watt



    25. State the formula for Power

    a) work done / time
    b) distance x time
    c) force x distance
    d) work done x time

    26. Explain what is Pressure

    a) force per unit area
    b) force x distance
    c) mass per unit force
    d) force x area



    27. What is the S.I Unit of pressure

    a) N/m2
    b) 1/ Pa
    c) Pa/ kg
    d) N/ kg



    28. What is the relationship between absolute pressure and gauge pressure ?

    a) Atmosphere = Absolute + Gauge
    b) Atmosphere = Gauge - Absolute
    c) Absolute = Gauge - Atmosphere
    d) Absolute = Atmospheric + Gauge


    29. Name two pieces of equipment used in pressure measurement .

    a) Tachometer and Bourdon Tube gauge
    b) U – Tube manometer and Bourdon Tube gauge
    c) Hydrometer and U-Tube manometer
    d) Thermometer and U-Tube manometer


    30. What are the temperature scales relevant to refrigeration ?

    a) Celcius and Pascal scales
    b) Kelvin and Celcius scales
    c) Pascal and Kilogramme scales
    d) Pascal and Kelvin scales



    31. What happens to the temperature of a liquid if the Internal kinetic energy is increased ?

    a) Temperature increases
    b) Temperature decreases
    c) Temperature stays the same
    d) Temperature changes



    32. What changes occur in a liquid if the internal potential energy is increased ?

    a) Change in volume
    b) Change in temperature
    c) Change of shape
    d) Change of state occurs



    33. Define the saturation temperature of a liquid.

    a) The lowest or highest point of a liquid
    b) The saturation of cold or hot liquid at a given pressure
    c) The temperature of a fluid in the liquid state
    d) The highest or the lowest temperature at which a fluid can exist as a liquid at a given pressure.


    34. What is saturated vapour?

    a) Vapour at its highest pressure at constant temperature.
    b) Vapour at its highest temperature at a given pressure.
    c) Vapour which has the same temperature as liquid
    d) Vapour at its lowest temperature for a given pressure.


    35. Which of the following closely describes Specific Volume

    a) m2/kg
    b) m3/kg
    c) kg/m3
    d) m3/kJ


    36. Explain what is Superheated Vapour

    a) Very hot vapour at constant pressure.
    b) Vapour which has low moisture content.
    c) Hot vapour at the same temperature and pressure.
    d) Vapour at a higher temperature than its saturated. condition but at the same pressure.


    37. Which of the following refers to ‘Subcooled liquid’.

    a) Fluid in the liquid state which has undergone cooling at a given pressure.
    b) Liquid which is being cooled at constant pressure.
    c) Liquid at its lowest temperature and a given pressure
    d) Liquid at a temperature below its saturation temperature at a given pressure.


    38. What Quantity of Heat is required to raise the temperature of 9 kg of water from 20 ºC to 25 ºC (Given C = 4200 J/kg K for water)

    a) 189 kJ c) 230 kJ


    b) 198 kJ d) 112 kJ



    taz

    .
    Last edited by taz24; 08-07-2009 at 10:55 PM.

  4. #4
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    Re: NVQ 3 online test

    Wow Taz, thanks for the effort!

  5. #5
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    Re: NVQ 3 online test

    very flash taz
    mmm to beer or not to beer...........lets drink breakfast

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    Thumbs up Re: NVQ 3 online test

    thanks so much Taz!!
    your time is much appreciated!

  7. #7
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    Re: NVQ 3 online test

    Is the apprentship "refrigeration engineer" in the uk only based on a full time on the job training and a part time academic training at a college? To do a online test to get a "NVQ". Could you explain the apprentship in the uk, plz?

    kind regards
    kevin

  8. #8
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    Re: NVQ 3 online test

    Kevin
    in most cases the NVQ has a practical part which requires the apprentice to prove competence aginst the award standards and a knowledge part which requires the apprentice to prove his underpinning knowledge of the refrigeration industry and its technolgy and science which in the UK is proved by taking three online exams for the basic qualification two more for the advanced award.

    Ian
    Pooh

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